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Succession · monarch of England

Why did James VI and I succeed Elizabeth I of England?

Inheritance by blood, secured by political preparation. A relative, not her child — first cousin twice removed, through Margaret Tudor.

The short answer

Elizabeth died unmarried and childless on 24 March 1603. James VI of Scotland was the senior descendant of Henry VII through Margaret Tudor, so by ordinary hereditary rules he was the closest heir. Family ties explained the claim; Robert Cecil's secret correspondence with James, and the absence of a credible rival, made the transfer peaceful.

Who they were

Family relationship

A relative, not her child — first cousin twice removed, through Margaret Tudor.

How power passed

Inheritance by blood, secured by political preparation

The claim was not straightforward. Henry VIII's will had favoured the descendants of his younger sister Mary over those of Margaret, and an old rule against foreign-born heirs could be read against James. Elizabeth refused throughout her reign to name a successor. From 1601 Cecil quietly prepared the ground; the story that Elizabeth nodded her assent to James on her deathbed comes from later accounts and cannot be verified. James was proclaimed in London the same day she died, with no opposition. Arbella Stuart, a Tudor descendant born in England, was the most-discussed alternative but had no party behind her.

Key points

Related family connections

Sources

Explanation written and reviewed by HistorIQly · reviewed 2026-09-18. Part of House of Stuart. Background on Wikipedia.

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